I may be over thinking this but on the second group of 34 stitches, why wouldnt i just continue the pattern from the * vs. the first couple stitches to the left of * ( k2, k2tog) ... If I did this I would be repeating the multiples of 6 leaving 2 stitches at the end.... If I start out as I was beginning the row k2, k2tog, * yo, ssk, k1, k2tog, yo , s2kp, to last 9 stitches... Leaves me with 1 at the end?
If the decrease wasn't in the middle I would be just repeating the *
Promise this is my last question of the evening. Really really appreciate this. Vogue patterns are tough to read and your assistance is invaluable!!!!