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Old 09-12-2005, 09:56 PM   #1
moonsingingfreak
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Back again! (and thanks to Ingrid)
Thanks for all the help last time, Ingrid!
Maybe someone can help me with this next bit:
My pattern calls to "MK" which they describe as "p2tog without slipping stitches off needle, then k2tog over same sts."
I guess this means that I purl over two sts, don't slip, and then I knit over the exact sts that I purled. Ok, not too shabby.
This pattern works 181 Sts. The pattern says:
"Row 1: knit
Row 2: P1, (MK) 90 times
Row 3: knit
Row 4: (MK) 90 times, P1."
Wouldn't this greatly decrease my sts? Or am I reading it wrong? I am trying to trust the pattern oh so hard, but, I just don't see the logic!!!!
Any insight would help :D
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Old 09-12-2005, 10:38 PM   #2
Ingrid
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Hi! It won't increase your stitches.

You're purling 2 tog and knitting the same 2 tog so you're using two stitches to do this and ending up with two stitches on your needle. I actually had to do it to figure that out. I've never seen this before.
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Old 09-13-2005, 07:04 PM   #3
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Even after your reply I was having a lot of trouble visualizing how I would still end up with two stitches. Then I was walking in the mall and *poof* I knew exactly what was going on. I kept thinking I would lose a stitch for some reason.
Expect more questions from me soon, especially when I get to the sides of my baby blanket!
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Old 09-13-2005, 07:05 PM   #4
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Most of the time if you just do it, it's a lot easier than trying to imagine it.
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Old 09-14-2005, 11:57 AM   #5
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Originally Posted by Ingrid
Most of the time if you just do it, it's a lot easier than trying to imagine it.
Oh I TOTALLY agree. I almost always just confuse myself if I try to visualize. Where are my needles!!!
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