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Old 04-24-2008, 04:14 PM   #1
joecallie
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I am working on a pattern and am totally confused.

It states as follows:

Divide for body:
Next Row (RS) K35, remove marker, k1 (left front), *slip next 42 to hold, rm. cast on 6 sts for underarm*, k61 rm, k1 work from * to * once, k36 - 146 sts.

My question is, when I slip the 42 to hold, are they left on the same needle, or on a holder? If left on the needle how do I cast on 6, do I had another yarn since the yarn I am using is at the end of the K35.
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Old 04-24-2008, 04:31 PM   #2
Jan in CA
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Originally Posted by joecallie View Post
I am working on a pattern and am totally confused.

It states as follows:

Divide for body:
Next Row (RS) K35, remove marker, k1 (left front), *slip next 42 to hold, rm. cast on 6 sts for underarm*, k61 rm, k1 work from * to * once, k36 - 146 sts.

My question is, when I slip the 42 to hold, are they left on the same needle, or on a holder? If left on the needle how do I cast on 6, do I had another yarn since the yarn I am using is at the end of the K35.
A link to the pattern always helps when asking questions. You're making a top down sweater correct?

I always use scrap yarn in a smaller gauge for the holder. It makes it easier to work the body that way IMO. The CO 6 will not be on the sleeves stitches that are on the holder. They will be the under arm when you go to pick up the sleeve stitches to knit them.

Does that help?
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Old 04-24-2008, 04:35 PM   #3
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Old 04-24-2008, 04:39 PM   #4
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it is a lionbrand pattern 1194. So do I put the 42 sts on a separate holder. Then I will have to start a new yarn for the cast on, is this correct?
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Old 04-24-2008, 04:48 PM   #5
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Originally Posted by joecallie View Post
it is a lionbrand pattern 1194. So do I put the 42 sts on a separate holder. Then I will have to start a new yarn for the cast on, is this correct?
Dang it I can't see the pattern and they said they sent the password, but it hasn't come in yet.

Well, normally after you CO the 6 you join with the other stitches. It will leave a sleeve shaped opening where you'll pick up stitches later. You don't need to use another ball of yarn.
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Old 04-24-2008, 04:56 PM   #6
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I am really having a hard time understanding. If I knit the 35 then rm k1, slip next 42. The yarn will be at the beginning of the slipped sts. so the slipped 42 will be on a separate holder, am I right. I may be thinking about this too hard. But I think I understand. I can only try.
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Old 04-24-2008, 05:03 PM   #7
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When you work the first 35, the yarn is at the end of that. Then you slip the 42 to a holder or piece of yarn. At that point, you cast on the new 6 stitches and continue knitting the stitches from the other needle.
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Old 04-24-2008, 11:27 PM   #8
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You're sliding the 42 stitches off to make a sleeve. They'll stay out of your way until the very end. As Jan says, having them on a piece of scrap yarn lets you tuck them out of the way more easily than a rigid holder would. Hold up your arm for a minute. If you were knitting the shirt you have on, see how you'd need to get the sleeve stitches out of the way so you could work the body in one piece? Cast on your six xtitxhes to make the armpit and go on with the same ball of yarn. It'll work.
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